JFRD Standard Operating Guideline (SOG) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the function of D and E flight?
• What is the audio cue that indicates a Mayday event?
• Which are general methods used for decontamination?
• Which action is part of the hurricane alert checklist?
• To minimize disturbance of evidence at a crime scene, responders should move in and out along what kind of path?
• What voltage do the DC generators in locomotives present an electrical hazard during derailments?
• What is the definition of Design?
• In a kernmantle rope, the load-carrying core provides approximately what percent of tensile strength?
• Which agency is identified as the Captain of the Port in the context of port safety and security?
• Compressed air in SCBA cylinders shall meet the requirements of which specification?
• The DVRS provides which benefit in challenging structure types?
• Level 2 staging will require designation of a what and formal what?
• For the ladder, which item is listed as a consideration for placement?
• Who is ultimately responsible for accountability at all incidents?
• When completing JFRD Rehab Form 1, include which item?
• Suppression apparatus assigned to which teams shall not be used as transfer companies?
• Which statement about Level 2 staging is true?
• Access to the downed firefighter should use which approach?
• Which item is included in ladder RIT equipment used for locating in smoky conditions?
• Which station has a Jon boat on lift?
• Debris off-site burning requires using what device and permit?
• What is the proper order of the first three hurricane stages in their occurrence?
• A roll call will be initiated when which condition exists?
• Administrative and chief officers have programmable portable radios that are capable of which tier?
• Recreational fire is defined as which of the following?
• Fires in elevator hoistways will generally be which size?
• What type of response is required anytime the SAR system is used?
• What should be placed at the entry point to enhance visibility of the escape route?
• If hoistway doors must be forced open to remove passengers, the opening force should be applied at the level of what feature?
• Which of the following is NOT a general decontamination method?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of the W4 signal's minimum apparatus?
• Full treatment for most communicable diseases can be initiated within how many hours without complications?
• Which FRL indicates a fire situation that is expected to be difficult, with potential carryover from the previous day and new fires starting?
• As RIT members move through the structure they should do what?
• In a confined space, the potential for a flammable atmosphere should be treated as what level of consideration?
• Daily soil moisture readings used to determine the drought index are taken by which agency?
• The ICS is a management process enabling -
• Which ladder RIT equipment item uses a specialized blade?
• Incident command operating requirements include which two elements?
• What is the purpose of incident command?
• A11 and A12 are conventional simplex radio frequencies used for short-range communication within distances of 1 mile. Which option describes this?
• ARFF units communicate with Air Traffic Control Tower via which ground channel?
• The size of the decon zone is determined by which factor?
• The main reason for subdividing an incident is?
• Draft marks are located forward, midship, and aft on most vessels. Which statement best describes their locations?
• The main power to the skyway station is supplied to substations located at which locations?
• Missing personnel are assumed to be what until proven otherwise?
• After the initial report, which role will be notified next?
• Which tone precedes dispatches of units on an Available status?
• Which squad item is used for signaling or lighting?
• Level 2 staging is employed for what type of incidents?
• During emergency runs, siren use should be limited to between which hours?
• Who determines the area to stage the RIT crew after reporting to IC?
• What is the maximum systolic blood pressure according to SOG 436 rehab?
• Shipboard Fire/Incident: The ultimate authority and responsibility for safety lies with which role?
• Who is responsible for designating the entry point within a Rapid Intervention Team operation?
• According to MCI 413, which FOGs are defined for incident management?
• The Y-Junction area track sections are hydraulically operated and electronically actuated. After power shutdown, these sections are considered what type of hazards?
• Assumption of command is discretionary for which ranks?
• Because hostage incidents can be of extended duration, deployments are recommended to be limited to how many hours?
• Which color code indicates Deceased in MCI triage?
• In a mayday call, LIP stands for which of the following?
• Aircraft emergencies are divided into how many categories?
• How many blue light stations are on each station loading platform?
• What is recommended for cleaning visibly dirty hands?
• For a residential structure fire, the primary suppression apparatus consists of which engines?
• SCBAs compliance is based on which NFPA standard?
• How often should rope inspections be noted in the rope log?
• Units advising 'available' on A2 without identifying destination will be assumed
• Gross decon is performed in which location?
• When the drought index reaches 400 or higher, the fire needs to be checked daily until it is cold. The question: how often should checks be performed until it is cold?
• These leaders will be assigned to oversee a division or a group. What do they oversee?
• FRCC shall repeat which transmissions from field units?
• A critical aspect of hazmat response is which of the following?
• Open burning of land clearing debris within how many feet of any public highway or road?
• Which equipment do JFRD personnel wear for respiratory protection?
• When the first arriving ladder is assigned to a structure fire, which consideration for ladder placement is listed?
• Who makes the determination regarding entry into a bomb perimeter?
• In a confined space, product identification is critical to evaluate hazards to rescuers and victims; therefore the Hazmat team should be called as soon as what is recognized?
• Which boat is equipped with CBRNE monitoring equipment?
• What is the total vehicle capacity of Skyway cars?
• In derailments, what equipment should be adequate to force entry into cars?
• Which item must never be used in a confined space?
• JFRD SCBAs meet the requirements of which NFPA standard?
• Which pair of officials is listed as capable of issuing evacuation orders for the public?
• To help identify the hazard, personnel should check for which of the following?
• For commercial land clearing, if not using an Air Curtain Incinerator, the burn must be at least how many feet from any occupied building?
• Which agency is listed as having jurisdiction over marine hazmat incidents, making them an exception to command?
• Primary search should be conducted in all involved and exposed occupancies that can be entered. Which option best reflects this guidance?
• With the addition of portable radios for all members, the JFRD will:
• Which channel would you use for EMS West communications?
• Which role on scene is responsible for life safety and determining if the involved building is tenable for interior operations?
• How long after initial dispatch does FRCC rebroadcast the assigned talk group?
• Which statement about the 800 mhz tier 3 radios for administrative and chief officers is true?
• Which boat lists 2 1/2 inch and 5 inch discharges along with one fixed monitor?
• When the ladder is assigned, what is a primary objective of its placement?
• Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) is carried by which units?
• All JFRD vehicles shall be operated in compliance with which statutes?
• An MCI is an incident resulting from what?
• FRL 2 indicates what about anticipated fires and resource use?
• What is prohibited in the area where the SCBA face piece seals with the face?
• Hydrant 1 at Cecil airport is located where?
• In complexes with private hydrants, the third engine should stage on a municipal hydrant outside the complex. Which option states this?
• Which boat has a beam of 10'5?
• To transmit and receive using this repeater, JFRD radios must be set to which channel?
• If necessary to travel in center or oncoming lanes, the max permissible speed shall be the -
• What action does the first arriving unit take with respect to ICS?
• What is a major factor in preserving and protecting crime scenes, and must be maintained to assure the safety of everyone involved?
• If using a washing machine to launder rope, what is required?
• Administrative and chief officers have programmable portable radios that are capable of scanning multiple flights and talk groups simultaneously.
• How many items comprise the JFRD riding list?
• If communications are not available during a hurricane and a staff member took leave, after how many hours will they be considered not reporting?
• Unless rescue is required, the incident commander should not commit personnel to the hot zone until what is available?
• For elevator incidents (except stuck-door calls), which entities should be called to the scene?
• Which item is NOT part of the ATU landing zone criteria?
• Groups are designated by
• SAR is required under which condition during confined space entry?
• According to SOG 436 rehab, what is the acceptable diastolic blood pressure range?
• Which category is associated with devastating damage?
• In addition to MDTs, which method can units use to acknowledge dispatch?
• What is the purpose of the Metro-Jax talkgroup?
• During a hurricane watch, designated stations should what?
• Extended response ICS is implemented when an operation may _____.
• Who is responsible to assure gross decon is established and oversee the gross decon area?
• In the MCI RPM-P protocol, how should major bleeding be handled?
• What is the primary objective when selecting the entry point?
• When completing JFRD Rehab Form 2, include which item?
• What type is the rope used by JFRD for all utility and safety lines?
• Which element must be attached to every entrant's harness?
• Who should be contacted for consultation before attempting to pull out any JFRD vehicle which has become stuck?
• To ensure rapid and efficient control of hazmat incidents, the JFRD incident commander should utilize the expertise of which group?
• Which category is described as catastrophic damage?
• During a live Special Event, FRCC monitors which channel?
• In complexes with private hydrants, the third arriving engine should stage where?
• In an active assailant incident, the appropriate what will be dispatched?
• Which station has a Jon boat on lift?
• Who shall walk completely around the structure making note of openings and problems delaying deployment?
• Activating the orange emergency alarm button on all radio positions in FRCC sets off an alarm and displays what?
• Train derailments: FRCC keeps rail maps with mile markers to aid in locating incidents. What item is kept to aid locating derailments?
• Jet engines have both hazard zones when the engines are running or idle. Which zones are these?
• Which mph range defines Category 2 hurricane?
• W4 signal: The minimum apparatus assigned to the W4 signal will be which of the following?
• The initial assignment dispatched is dictated by which of the following?
• Which procedure completes the transfer of command?
• Which MCI trailer carries equipment for IMMEDIATE needs on JIA property?
• Which squad RIT item is used for patient transport?
• Which approach increases the chances of saving lives and property during a fire?
• In wildland fire structural protection, what is the maximum allowed hose lay length?
• If conditions warrant an unscheduled evacuation of the station, the officer in charge will notify which position first?
• The FM-200 extinguishing system is used in which areas of the Skyway building?
• What does NiCad stand for?
• For commercial land clearing using an Air Curtain Incinerator, the burn must be at least how many feet away from occupied buildings?
• Which factor is the most potentially destructive force in a major hurricane?
• What is the maximum pressure for supplying the international shore connection at the flange?
• How many unique vessel types are listed among the assets?
• The RIT group OIC will designate an entry point based on what?
• Which statement is true about rehab procedures after intense work?
• In the described system, which vehicle is used to supply compressed air for filling SCBA cylinders?
• Which stations are covered at all times?
• Minimum rehab time after using a single 45-minute SCBA or 40 minutes of intense work without SCBA is:
• Which entity owns and operates the airport and is the controlling entity for all airport operations?
• The success of decon operations is based on which factor?
• According to SOG 436 rehab, what is the acceptable systolic blood pressure range?
• Nylon static kernmantle rope becomes sticky at a temperature of about and melts between which temperatures?
• PDP stands for what in the Skyway Express system?
• Fireground operations must be structured around the completion of which process?
• Who monitors operations as part of incident command in hazmat response?
• Who designates Level 2 staging officer and the formal staging area?
• In ATU operations, what call sign is often used to contact the ATU?
• Which channel is designated for Dispatch?
• Which statement best defines Carelessness as used in the investigative context?
• Which agency assigns the frequency used by the ground guide to contact the ATU?
• In the combined territories of stations 1, 2, 4, 5, and 9, how many engines and ladders are maintained?
• Which boat has a length of 70' 10?
• Which boat has a length of 37 feet?
• Draft marks: when firefighting operations are ongoing, the location where water touches the draft marks should be noted at which times?
• What is the purpose of elevator equipment if proper conditions for running are not met?
• Which statement describes the passing rule when the lead vehicle is having mechanical difficulties?
• During extended operations, how much fluid should each individual drink per hour?
• Back up FRCC is located at which location?
• Which item is listed for engine RIT equipment but not listed for ladder or squad?
• A11 and A12 are associated with which agencies?
• How often shall the air quality from compressors, cascade storage cylinders, and related equipment be tested?
• All structure fires require at least how many squads assigned as RIT?
• Extinguishers for electrical fires in elevator equipment should be rated for which class?
• Who designates the radio talk group to be used for the RIT operation?
• The _____ is the final authority for the incident.
• Before using the last resort method, ensure that which has been disconnected?
• Which notifications shall generate the 10 minute increment notification from FRCC?
• During the initial response in ICS, radio communications should use which designations?
• Which type of arrival shall always have priority?
• From what angle should you typically approach military aircraft to avoid hazards posed by armament, fusible plugs, and navigational aids?
• The ICS can be subdivided into two stages: which pair?
• Which field on the riding list is NOT listed as part of the riding list components?
• How many spare SCBA bottles should companies bring per person, not including the initial attack team?
• Which ladder item involves a heavy duty cutting tool?
• Which radio system does JFRD primarily use for communications?
• What is the correct sequence regarding hot zone commitment and decontamination capabilities?
• Train derailments: primary concern of railroad personnel on scene may be to-
• Which zone is the cold zone?
• Which authority should be consulted before performing extrication or metal cutting operations?
• Which chiefs are listed as currently having DVRS in their vehicles?
• Which areas are served by the FM-200 extinguishing system—Control Room, Computer Room, and Signal Room?
• Which scenario would trigger a state fire marshal investigation according to the given guidelines?
• Which asset is NOT listed as a JFRD marine asset?
• NPV in ventilation terms stands for?
• Which statement is least aligned with standard confined space entry requirements?
• Transformers at the control center and each substation supply power to which?
• A wildland fire is considered contained when there is what?
• Engulfment in a confined space is defined as the surrounding and effective capture of a person by what?
• To protect passengers during a machine room fire, which action should be taken?
• Whose responsibility is tracking personnel on a scene?
• Which FRL requires outside assistance beyond a 24 hour period?
• FRCC shall divert units to other incidents based on the criterion that?
• In a residential structure fire, how many engines constitute the primary suppression apparatus?
• Do sirens automatically grant the right of way to emergency vehicles?
• The manual crank for moving the elevator car is located in which part of the system?
• Which option represents all defined alert levels for aircraft incidents?
• The Incident Commander must assume responsibility for which of the following?
• How many water supply sources should be established at shipboard fires?
• On what date of each year does the station captain report deficiencies to the Battalion Chief through chain of command?
• How many chiefs are listed as having DVRS in their vehicles?
• All dispatches of units on an Available status will be preceded by what?
• Which channel is primarily used on marine incidents involving multiple agencies and not monitored by FRCC?
• Can the Announcement group receive transmissions?
• For structure fires, when does the 10 minute increment timer begin?
• FRCC will contact field units via which method?
• What is the function of B flight?
• What is the hydrostatic testing interval for air cascade storage cylinders and carbon fiber SCBA cylinders?
• What is the correct order of reporting from the first person to the next official when a suspected infectious disease is involved?
• Drought index is a measure of what?
• Who coordinates the exposure notification and post-exposure management process for infectious exposure?
• The - will designate a radio talk group to be used for the RIT operation.
• Which item is not listed as engine RIT equipment?
• Which boat has a beam of 22 feet?
• Hydrant 2 at JIA is located where?
• Which channel is designated for EMS East?
• Colored ribbons for MCI color coding-CD mapping: Red-Immediate; Yellow-Delayed; Green-Ambulatory; Black-Deceased. Which option lists this color mapping correctly?
• Only the patient or the complainant may request cancellation of responding units prior to arrival of JFRD or JSO personnel. Who may request cancellation?
• Which entity shall have command and control for barricaded subjects or hostage situations?
• Which statement correctly describes the DVRS's channel switching process?
• Which sequence is true for FRCC alerts and roll call during a Mayday?
• Available units shall acknowledge by advising on the appropriate talk group which message?
• Who may cancel ATU after evaluation indicates it is not needed?
• Level 1 staging is employed for incidents that require what?
• Synthetic-based hydraulic fluid is typically found in which quantity throughout the aircraft?
• Hanna Park is not monitored by FRCC on which channel?
• Subdividing incidents leaders may be called by which titles?
• What is the required ratio of the Rescue/Entry Team (RIT) members to the entry team members for a confined space incident?
• Which list comprises the five hurricane stages?
• Requests for station equipment problems shall be submitted through or by calling which location and number?
• What is the primary consideration in size-up of a hazmat incident and the prime responsibility of the first arriving unit?
• Immediately after identifying the hazard, which shall be established?
• In vessel fires, what is a major concern affecting the rotation intervals between entry teams?
• An Attendant at a Confined Space incident is the person in charge of the hot zone and is responsible for:
• The initial MCI level will be based on the estimated numbers prior to what?
• Which channel designates EMS West and is monitored by FRCC at all times?
• Hydrant 3 at Cecil airport is located where?
• Which units will be dispatched to manage the rehabilitation process?
• If there are 2 entry/exit points into the confined space, what ventilation arrangement may be provided at one entry/exit and to the other?
• Which color code corresponds to ambulatory (minor) victims?
• Which units are assigned to all incidents involving the decon unit?
• Who determines entry into the bomb perimeter?
• The drought index ranges from 0 to 800. Which option correctly shows this range?
• Under FRL 2, what is the expected difficulty in control or mop up?
• Emergency walkways are provided on which side of the Skyway cars?
• Which description defines Alert 2?
• Units must be evacuated how many hours prior to landfall?
• Exceed posted speed limit only under - defined as
• Which description defines Alert 1?
• For ladders, the minimum number of utility lines is which of the following?
• What action should RIT take with doors and windows as they move through the structure?
• Which statement best describes the two unit categories assigned to a structure fire?
• In bomb incidents, which scenario is listed as an exception to the perimeter entry restriction?
• Units housed in structures not suitable for winds above what mph must be evacuated?
• Field personnel shall inform FRCC as soon as the power is restored. Which entity should be informed?
• What term describes the action to reduce carcinogen exposure during overhaul operations?
• Which channel is used for dispatch?
• During a hostage situation, all units will respond in what status?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an IC responsibility?
• Where are the nickel-cadmium (nicad) batteries located?
• Which MCI trailer carries equipment for LONG TERM needs throughout the region?
• Which item is uniquely listed for ladder RIT equipment and involves a specialized saw?
• What is the status label when the FIN is connected to the 800 MHz radio system to enable mutual aid communication?
• When encountering an untested confined space, personnel should assume the atmosphere is:
• What is the exception to the rule requiring tac support consultation before pulling a stuck vehicle?
• In a fire in an elevator machine room, extinguishers should be used for which class fires?
• The entry point should be which of the following?
• What is the standard issue radio for the JFRD?
• O&M Center stands for which of the following?
• If the IC decides an additional alarm is needed for a single family residence, it should be called for when?
• After the Health and Safety Officer is notified, who will be notified next?
• During periods of heavy radio traffic, non-emergency status changes should be conducted via which method?
• Which acronym denotes the airport authority responsible for owning and operating the airport?
• Hoistway doors are provided with which feature to allow emergency access?
• For residential land clearing, a burn must be at least how many feet from any occupied building?
• The incident is considered to be in rescue mode until which event occurs?
• Who notifies the Air Traffic Control Tower when Alert 1 is terminated?
• The 10 minute notifications will continue until FRCC has been advised that which condition?
• In Level 2 staging, the area where apparatus and resources are held is called what?
• An employee suspects someone has an infectious disease. To whom should they report first?
• In hurricane warning procedures, which action is specified?
• Establishing command refers to which action?
• Which item is a post-landfall operational focus?
• Which MCI role is responsible for triage duties?
• Prior permission must be obtained before ARFF apparatus leave the airport property from whom?
• The blue light stations house switches that perform which action at the affected station?
• Under less than favorable conditions the maximum permissible speed is the posted speed limit; if necessary to travel in the center or oncoming lanes, the max permissible speed shall be -
• The element that shall be established on all extrication scenes?
• Before attempting fire control in an elevator machine room, what action must be secured?
• The W4 signal is a policy created to which objective?
• In the RPM triage method, after attempting to open the airway, if spontaneous respiration resumes, what tag should be assigned?
• Which of the following is an exception to JFRD's authority to assume command of a hazmat incident?
• The ICS can be subdivided into - stages
• In an active assailant incident, casualty collection point is best described as a location where:
• Which boat measures 50 feet in length?
• What is the overall aim of the interoperability features described?
• The degree of decontamination is determined by which group?
• On structures other than small single family residences, an which shall be requested?
• Which statement describes the Jacksonville lifeguards' radio setup?
• MCI 413: first arriving unit duties correspond to which FOG?
• In engine-room fires, the foam should be applied to sustain a duration of how many minutes?
• What should drivers know about an emergency vehicle's approach?
• The red phone system will do what?
• Which guidelines should be followed when cleaning PPE?
• Which statement best describes FRL 5?
• Establishing incident command is required by which of the following?
• How many primary hydrants are there at Cecil airport?
• Which statement describes the function of the A1 channel?
• During a shipboard fire/incident, which role has ultimate authority for safety?
• Which channel is used for Special Events and monitored by FRCC when in use?
• Which stage occurs after landfall?
• What is the most potentially destructive force of a major hurricane?
• Ballistic vests and helmets are only to be worn when directed by which position?
• In active assailant incidents, JFRD will not approach the scene until which conditions are met?
• The elevation in some areas of the San Marco section exceeds how many feet?
• 84 hours prior to landfall corresponds to which hurricane stage?
• In a commercial structure fire, how many engines constitute the primary suppression apparatus?
• Active assailant incidents: Incidents are often over before law enforcement arrives, usually within:
• FRL 4 fire situation may include carryover from the previous day and new fires starting. Which FRL describes this?
• Which description defines Alert 3?
• Power failures at the station shall be reported to which entity?
• What precedes all dispatches of units in quarters?
• In hurricane watch procedures, which action is part of the listed items?
• Which Fog number outlines the duties of the staging officer?
• Which option is a listed consideration for ladder placement regarding the jack deployment?
• The Announcement group broadcasts to which groups?
• The use of ICS is mandatory on ______.
• In the RPM triage method, what tag is assigned if a patient has 31 or more respirations?
• A11 and A12 frequencies are best described as what kind and distance?
• In MCI RPM-P protocol, when should a patient be tagged red?
• Staging shall be divided into how many levels based on size and complexity?
• Secondary search is performed after which action to absolutely confirm the presence or absence of victims?
• A confined space is defined as a space that is not intended for continuous occupancy, has limited openings for entry and exit, and has unfavorable natural ventilation. Which option best matches this definition?
• Which option is NOT a listed case for automatic W4 signal?
• Prior to evacuation on all fire alarm responses, which should be considered?
• Which channel is used for dispatch coordination between Nassau Fire/Rescue and other agencies?
• How many primary hydrants are there at JIA for ARFF apparatus refill?
• Which asset is at station 32?
• Within how many seconds must a response be received before FRCC will attempt to contact the unit directly by radio and/or red phone?
• The Digital Vehicular Repeater System (DVRS) is best described as which of the following?
• Which statement about secondary search is true?
• Which factor dictates the resources necessary for efficient command operations?
• Units in quarters will acknowledge receipt of dispatch by performing one of the following in descending order. Which action is listed first?
• 36-60 hours prior to landfall corresponds to which hurricane stage?
• The doors of Skyway cars have tempered glass windows; the remaining windows are made of which material?
• Under these conditions the max mph over the posted speed limit is authorized.
• Which boat has the highest fire pump capacity?
• Open burning must be at least how far from any public highway or road?
• Units equipped with MDTs will maintain response status via which method?
• Where is the Fire Control Plan likely to be found?
• Field personnel are responsible for what task until power is restored?
• In these guidelines, what does transfer refer to with suppression apparatus?
• A crank for manual operation is provided in which part of the elevator system?
• In hostage incidents, which entity shall notify relief companies to allow for preparation and travel time?
• What must the primary suppression apparatus provide at the scene of all structure fires?
• What phrase accompanies the repeated FRCC transmissions?
• Urgent station equipment repairs outside normal business hours that require overtime must be authorized by which position?
• During extended operations in ICS, supervising personnel will be referred to by their what?
• What does the acronym ATCT stand for in these procedures?
• The confined space should be ventilated so that levels of combustibles do not exceed what and toxic substances do not reach what?
• The special operations team is comprised of which fire stations?
• Do not store rope in compartments with or near which items?
• FRCC will conduct roll call by calling which group first?
• The decontamination zone is located in which zone and extends from which zone to which zone?
• What is the function of A flight?
• What structure is established to coordinate multi-agency responsibilities and stakeholder interests during a vessel fire?
• Open burning causing excessive visible emissions is defined as opacity equal to or greater than what percentage?
• The hazardous areas around jet engines are dependent on which factor?
• Rescue 16 is not to be used as a transfer company. Which option correctly answers which Rescue unit this applies to?
• Sirens should be used to warn traffic with minimal disturbance. Which option best describes this guideline?
• In a wildland fire, a structure may be deemed hopeless when which condition exists?
• Which asset is the lift-equipped vessel?
• Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) stands for?
• What is the minimum diastolic blood pressure within the SOG 436 rehab range?
• A secondary RIT consists of which units?
• FRL 3 indicates what?
• Who defines aircraft emergencies to provide standard descriptions and terminology?
• In hazmat operations, the warm zone is restricted to which items?
• Initial response ICS is implemented within the ____ of an incident.
• One-half inch lifeline has a tensile strength of which value?
• During softening operation the RIT should maintain a - member team including themselves, uncommitted for rapid deployment and reduced fatigue.
• What are the most effective products for reducing germs on the hands of healthcare providers?
• Which of the following best represents the factors that dictate the needed response to an aircraft incident?
• The first ladder at all structure fires is designated as which of the following?
• Rehab 37 will be dispatched on which triggers?
• What is a primary effect of activating the orange emergency alarm button?
• In the hurricane alert checklist, which action is listed?
• After a report of 'situation stable', which statement best describes how additional units should proceed?
• Before committing JFRD personnel to a hazmat incident, which factors must be considered?
• Hurricane: JFRD activities will fall primarily under which branch of the EOC operations section?
• The incident commander must request the state fire marshal for which condition?
• Which component has the ability to shutdown power to the entire Skyway Express system at once or in sections?
• When washing rope, it should be washed in which type of water and with what additive?
• Which incident category is listed for W3s involving large commercial structures?
• Subdivisions of incidents may be called what?
• Tac Support is not routinely monitored by FRCC on which channel?
• Where may waybills be located?
• What is the minimum clearance required for the ATU approach path?
• Who can issue evacuation orders for the public?
• During a hurricane watch, which action is listed?
• 24-36 hours prior to landfall corresponds to which hurricane stage?
• The breakers located inside equipment rooms at each substation supply power to which components?
• The fluid is under high pressure and has an extremely high ignition temperature; Which statement best describes this?
• ARFF units utilize the Cecil ground channel to communicate with which facility?
• How many decon types are described in the material?
• Which FRL indicates a fire situation is extreme and the ability to respond will exceed district capability, with outside assistance needed beyond a 24-hour period?
• When does hurricane season run?
• Which of the following is listed as an incident category that the special ops team responds to?
• Command will be established on all wildland fires involving FRL or greater?
• Which pair of channels is monitored by FRCC at all times?
• The fast attack mode should be brief lasting how long?
• Which device is commonly used to assess heat sources inside a burning vessel?
• Whose responsibility is the cleaning, maintenance and storage of the SAR system?
• Which boat has a fire pump rated at 1500 GPM?
• Which statement best captures the decontamination decision factors: health hazards, skin effects, toxicity, reactivity, solubility?
• Which statement best describes the SCBA usage during entry?
• Which asset is described as a mud boat?
• HEPA masks are provided to prevent which illnesses?
• PPV in confined space ventilation stands for?
• Which boat is not listed as having a heated/air conditioned patient care area?
• Which group uses a differently programmed radio system specifically for lifeguards in Jacksonville?
• What FRCC announcement follows Alert 3?
• How many power rails power the cars traction motors?
• Which channel handles suppression incidents requiring four or fewer units and is monitored by FRCC at all times?
• What are the three distinct hazmat zones?
• All personnel entering a confined space must don which combination of PPE and equipment?
• JFRD's responsibility during a Bomb/WMD investigation is which two functions only?
• NOT listed as equipment ladder companies shall bring?
• If it is suspected that an incident was caused by a bomb, when can JFRD personnel enter the perimeter?
• When the ATU is on the ground, which practice is recommended regarding personnel?
• In which situation should the state fire marshal be requested due to potential danger or severity?
• During a Mayday incident, FRCC will activate which alert?
• Rope Log includes which of the following items?
• In this context, ARFF OIC refers to which role?
• Tac support contact numbers are which of the following?
• Which units, being quicker and more maneuverable, may pass slower units?
• If available, what is the best entry route onto the aircraft for victim rescue or interior fire attack?
• What is the minimum ATU landing zone size?
• What wind speed defines a Category 5 hurricane with catastrophic damage?
• Who communicates with the victim on the radio talk group?
• How should the emergency alarm button be reset after the emergency ends?
• When a hazmat incident is reported, FRCC will obtain information including which of the following?
• Citations may be issued if open burning occurs within how many feet of an active runway at an approved public airport?
• Under what condition can stations 16 and 56 avoid a transfer engine?
• The time involved in implementing ICS should produce time savings, through -
• Nothing showing generally requires what by the first arriving unit?
• Which option is included on Rehab Form 2?
• Active assailant incidents: the JFRD apparatus will remain in staging until directed by whom?
• Which device is used to locate heat signatures through smoke during shipboard fires?
• Which boat has a draft of 3' 10?
• What are the two phases in which searches occur on the fireground in this guideline?
• All personnel operating at a crime scene are subject to what legal process?
• Which asset is at station 40?
• Which item is not listed as information FRCC will obtain about a hazmat incident?
• Blue light stations must be activated on which sides of the emergency as well as the station involved?
• The Florida interoperability network (FIN) radio is used to do what?
• The Rescue District/Battalion Chief on scene shall ensure that post fire decon is performed for members reporting to rehab. Which option best represents the responsible position?
• What is the most common form of rope destruction?
• If TRT is not already on scene, should be dispatched as soon as -.
• Keeping rope clean helps prevent dirt from shortening its life through what mechanism?
• If there is only 1 entry/exit point into the confined space, what should be placed in the confined space and what should be applied?
• Which asset is described as a mud boat?
• Which statement best describes the Metro-Jax talkgroup?
• Where are the electronics located in the Skyway cars?
• Other vehicles shall not pass each other unless which condition is met?
• The goal of triage is to quickly identify those victims who are in the most need of rapid treatment and transport, and to determine where they are found in less than 60 seconds.
• Which boat features a landing craft design?
• In kernmantle rope, the outer sheath provides approximately what percent of tensile strength?
• Permitted land clearing is allowed from 0900 until what time?
• Which is the second type of decon described?
• After the first arriving unit reports 'situation stable', additional units shall continue response with which of the following?
• Defensive attack is directed at which of the following?
• Which directional area around jet engines should generally be avoided?
• Wet-soap decon removes up to what percentage of contaminants on PPE?
• Primary search should be conducted in which areas?
• All corrective measures for the hurricane season checklist are to be completed prior to which date?
• Non-display radios can access only the first 3 ABC.
• MCI 413: establish command fog - which Fog?
• What method is used on the radio for the benefit of surrounding units?
• Which hazard must be considered by the first arriving engine related to lines?
• Decontaminated personnel must undergo medical evaluation at what time?
• What kind of maintenance program is essential for the reliable long-term operation of JFRD SCBAs?
• Into what should soiled/contaminated uniforms or protective clothing be placed before processing?
• FRL 1 indicates what about fire activity?
• Where is the Skyway Express control center building located?
• Which mph range defines Category 1 hurricane?
• Who maintains the integrity of the Action Circle on extrication scenes?
• Emergency response does not absolve the operator to drive with what?
• An MCI is an incident that strains response due to the number and severity of the casualties. Which elements are overwhelmed?
• The delineation of hazmat zones is part of incident readiness and response planning for hazardous materials incidents, emphasizing safety and control.
• The decon team is comprised of which station?
• The control room inside the Skyway Express control center building is located on which floor?
• With a safety factor of 15:1 accounted for, the actual usable capacity of the line is what?
• NFPA standard for a 2-person load is which of the following?
• In fast attack situations, what is required to stabilize the situation?
• Which factor is used to determine the needed response to an aircraft incident?
• Extended response ICS is characterized by _____.
• The key to personnel tracking is which role?
• Who is the ultimate decision maker over all port matters?
• Which channel is used for Nassau Fire/Rescue (dispatch)?
• The last resort method for removing a victim from an elevator is through which means?
• Where is the Y-Junction located?
• If the wheels on a Skyway car are locked, the brakes can be released by which method?
• Who designates a safety officer when personnel operate in a potentially hazardous atmosphere or other dangerous operations?
• What component is automatically released by a cam on the elevator car when the car is within a few inches of floor level?
• What should the RIT OIC do to assess exterior access and delays?
• When a downed firefighter is found, what is the most important action?
• Which mph range defines Category 4 hurricane?
• If a response is not received from a dispatched unit within 15 seconds, FRCC will attempt to contact the unit directly by what means?
• Under the NIMS model, who will establish command at the emergency operations center?
• When hands are not visibly dirty, which method is preferred for cleaning your hands in the healthcare setting?
• Which boat has a draft of 3'2?
• What is the function of C flight?
• When DVRS is utilized, what action is described?
• The second arriving engine on a structure fire should approach the scene how far?
• Divisions may be designated as follows, except which option is NOT a division designation?
• When companies are assigned to spare units, who shall be responsible for the vehicle and its equipment?
• What is the cycle duration for the decontamination process?
• Which mph range defines Category 3 hurricane?
• Which statement best reflects how incident complexity affects ICS deployment?
• During a W4 response, why is rehab important?
• What is the term for the decon process used to rapidly reduce contaminants on skin and clothing?
• Train derailments: primary concern of JFRD personnel should be the
• Which asset is at station 42?
• Pressurized tanks may be found inside which railcar type?
• A casualty collection point in an active assailant incident is best described as a location where responders can receive patients from law enforcement.
• Available units shall acknowledge dispatch by advising on the appropriate talk group for the benefit of surrounding units. What should they advise?
• Who tests and certifies safe use of SCBA and face pieces, and how is it evaluated?
• In MCI RPM-M, what tag is used when the victim follows commands and is AOx4?
• All non-emergency status changes will be conducted on which channel?
• Which organization has a portable repeater that can be placed on the vessel for communications?
• What is the primary purpose of the Announcement group?
• When is the decon team dispatched?
• Hydrant 1 at JIA is located where?
• Who is the only person who communicates with the ATU, with ground guide contacting ATU via FRCC frequency?
• If possible, what should responders do to gather hazard information from the source on scene?
• Where should contaminated uniforms be delivered for processing?
• During hours when there is no operator on duty, the Skyway Express will be in which state?
• Which item is NOT listed as safety equipment for the ground guide during ATU operations?
• What is the purpose of the Action Circle on extrication scenes?
• Which channel is described as not routinely monitored by FRCC?
• Before the vehicle is permitted to move, who will confirm that all personnel and riders are on board, PPE if necessary, and wearing seatbelts?
• What does LCES stand for in wildland fire safety?
• Which item is specified as engine company equipment for shipboard fires?
• Command is transferred only when which condition has been met?